Paideia and Apakatastasis – A Hyper Focus

The Perversion of the “HELL VERSES”


“Paideia” (cf. Dr. Werner Yeager’s treatment on “Christian Paideia” and “Classical Greek Paideia”) was the classical education for the first century Christian Children which means, “to walk; walk; the walk”—-i.e., “the little *footers*”. One could use the Star Wars term, “Padua (same term as Paideia) ”, for “young ones learning “The Force”. We see this term in “Pediatrics” for medical care for the youth.

The Paideia for 1st century Christian children consisted of (1) Greek and Latin language (2) Logic (3) Rhetoric. All such Classical education came DIRECTLY out of Aristotle and Plato’s Greek and references to the classical myths of Homer on down (cf. my treatment on Homeric ties with the synoptic Gospels). There would have been no confusion between the New Testament text presented by Paul and the Paideia because Paul was Hellenistically-classically trained. Paul cryptically if not openly referred to the classics and the Great Philosophers in the Scripture. Paul, by inspiration of God, fulfilled the philosophy of the Greek writings by stitching them into their final stages with the Resurrection of the unknown god at Mars Hill. Paul’s Christianity was understood by the Hellenized World, i.e., to the Barbarians, Pagan Rome, Greece, and Europe. Everyone would have understood the Greek usage of the Greek New Testament because the words were interlocked with the Hellenized culture which was Aristotelian based and enforced through his student, Alexander.

So, the Greek usage during the ante-nicene first century Church (ca. 33 A.D. to ca. 350 A.D.) was, for sure, philosophically and linguistically Aristotelian (and Platonic based). Alexander the Great, who “Hellenized (made everyone learn Greek/ think Greek) the world, was the direct padua/ ‘mathetikon’ of Aristotle —or, “Mathetekes (mathematician – i.e., “disciple” is known in the New Testament).

Now, let’s apply this knowledge to Biblical exegesis:



I will use this definition again within this treatment but I would like to place this first for our “mental coathangers”: Aristotle’s “Kolosis (judgment) is used for the SAKE/ BENEFIT of the one being punished” – i.e., IN ORDER FOR REMISSION OF THE SIN!/ A RECTIFICATION!!!

The ‘eternal scourging’ was and is our English idea of “Eternity” from the *interpolation -perversion* via the Latin Vulgate’s “Aeturnus” ((and not the original Biblical Greek, ‘Aeones’)) which, indeed, meant “eternity without end”.

In contrast to the Vulgate’s erroneous translation-usage of Aeturnus, the Biblical Aeones (a certain duration of time) and Kolosis (affliction for the benefit of the afflicted unto remission of guilt), which was not understood or applied in the Medieval mind of King James or his Biblical *version*, was used as an expression of the ‘baptism of fire’ (( Matthew 3:11: John the Baptist as an ‘enactment’ or ‘panomimist’ says: “I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but HE that cometh after me (JESUS) is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: HE shall baptize you with the HOLY GHOST and WITH FIRE/ 1 Peter 4:12 – “Don’t think it a strange thing that a fiery trial would take place upon you”)) or ‘fiery trials which are to try us’ (The “evil” aspect of us as the ‘evil doer’) unto the remission of sins’ in order for their eye or hand to burn and not them (cf. Matthew 18:8 {paraphrased) if your hand, foot, or eye causes you to stumble, cast it into eternal fire lest the “WHOLE” body be thrown into eternal fire! ←– But now! In Philippians 2:13 it states: “For it is God WHO works in you to WILL and to ACT in order to fulfill HIS GOOD PURPOSE”. So, any “repentance” unto remission of sins is a GOOD *act, will, choice, doing, becoming, etc.*. So, WHO is doing the “casting of the limbs lest the whole body is cast into hell” thing? …Looks to me that this is a “META” idea. If we are “speaking” as “we see” then we are very well deluded. If we read, learn, obey, study, dig deep, etc. into the Biblical Greek and Hebrew text we WILL FIND that it is GOD who creates, does, WILLS ALL things for the ‘good’ of HIM and those who have been made to believe in HIM (Isaiah 45:7; ff—Isaiah 48; Romans 8:28-ff, etc.).

It would be psychotic to shed rageful anger and eternal damnation forever upon something, someone that is governed by YOUR WILL to begin with. Adversely, what IS LEFT IS REASON: In the FREEDOM of being within the INFINITE WEB of GOD’s existence as HIS *CHILDREN* to roam FREELY in HIS mansion/ domicile/dominion/’doom’/judgement = all the same word, etymologically (cf. my “WYRD HOARD” podcast on “Doom and Fates”) we are eternally bound to infinite possibilities of joy, love, experience, etc. Not even the Calvinists seem to take “Predeterminism” this far, yet, THIS KIND OF PREDETERMINISM is what concludes us to UNIVERSAL RECONCILIATION and Calvinists MUST HAVE THEIR JUDGEMENTS! It’s a schizophrenic approach to scripture to hold to either Calvinism for all of its predeterminism of “love” for the Calvinist and “Hate” for the non Calvinist. Worse yet, the “seeking” of the doomed. I become sickened at reading my own typing here because I know these words are ALL ‘ill-defined’ by ‘orthodoxy’.

It was King James, however, who wrote “Demonology” and was a supporter of a fifteenth century text written by the clergyman, Heinrich Kramer, called “Malleus Maleficarum (Medieval Latin: “the Hammer of Witches”)” which supported the Medieval “hunt for the **Judgment** of those that ‘seemed’ to be a witch. This book seems to match the Vulgate’s adopted fallible translation and perverse “judgment or ‘other judgment’ not mentioned in the Bible from  God.

Such a vengeful spirit was astutely addressed by Aristotle (as he defined all things) using his Greek. Such a Greek word that Aristotle contrasted with kolosin was ekdike, or, revenge.

Ekdike was Aristotle’s Greek for ‘revenge/ vengeful judgment’ in his work called, “rhetoric”. Aristotle said that “ekdike” was based on a ‘hunger-anger-appetite-revenge-emotional seated’ perversion. Such a definition of “revenge and judgment” based on a humanistically made “god” fit human ‘justification’ and fit King James and all of his witch hunting club’s views of ‘control, God, sexuality, possession, dominance, sexual deviancy, beastiality very nicely. For sure, the spirit of fear quelled the masses’ complaints and garnered the populus with an iron fist. Maybe the history of King James is hidden from most due to his disgusting appetites and sado-masochistic practices that anyone can read about now. What ‘modern orthodox King James Version thumper’ wants that out of the bag? This is not to say that we cannot use the King James Version to read the histories, peoples, Israel’s conflicts, internal strifes, etc… But, only to be aware of reading the English text *AT FACE VALUE DISMISSING THE ORIGINAL


Revenge – *JUDGEMENT* Recap:

“Revenge”: Greek: “ekdike”. Aristotle said that ekdike’ meant: “anger for revenge” Aristotle continued to define ‘ekdike’ and say: the action of inflicting harm or hurt on someone for an injury or wrong suffered at their hands) is a “habit” based on appetite and is rooted in emotions–human emotions” –> cf  Aristotle’s “Rhetoric”–Book 1/ Chapter 10/ vs. 13 in the “Basic Writings of Aristotle”.

This “ekdikes” is connotatively akin to the King James, “Judgment”. This puts God with emotional problems and relates to a humanistic-childish approach for ‘resolve’ if we interpolate THIS KIND OF JUDGMENT into the connotation of God’s Final Judgment, which has NOTHING TO DO WITH THE ORIGINAL GREEK TEXT OR ITS SEMIOTIC COMMITTED LANGUAGE.

Once again, New Testament word for Matthew 25’s, “judgement”: “Kolosin chastisement-judgement-for full acknowledgement of infraction and ‘coming to be’ to restitution)!!!

Let’s continue:

When we look at Matthew 25:41 Jesus uses the term “judgment {Greek: kolosis}. As we see the final usage of it in the “final judgment“ in the following verses: “Then He will also say to those on the left hand (sinister gyrate/ hand of no blessing), Depart from Me, you cursed, into the everlasting fire prepared the the devil and his angels (this does not mean that we won’t be ‘singed’ and ‘remitted’ for sins through ‘the fire that burns’. That is, there is a heat or “orge” that we will experience when we break the law. This has nothing to do with another topic, i.e., OUR SALVATION. These are entirely two different things. : for I was hungry and you gave ME no food: I was thirsty and you gave ME no drink. …etc.

Here’s something that needs to be understood before the next paragraph: Jesus is aligning Himself with King David, the Messiah to Come, The Sun of the Son, and the Father. His WORDS are in unity and conjunction with the LINE of the Lion (Lebayu) of Judah. Saul was named the same, Lebayu,….the Lion. But, his actions of jealousy and murder assigned him a new NAME or Shem: “SAUL” which is the same word for “HELL”—i.e., “SHEOL”. Saul was, “The Lord’s ANOINTED”. How can a saved man be in hell? …. These are the concepts we must understand to correctly read the Bible. “In Darkness” meant, “SHEOL”…or, in the Germanic, “HOLEN”…in the “hole”…in the place of “Darkness”. This is also Latin for DUCARE’ …which means, “Darkness”…hence, “e + ducare” = “education” = “out of + darkness”. Saul was ‘coming to be’. Saul was “God’s Anointed” 0000 yet he had to “fall into darkness” AS AN ANOINTED OF GOD!!! Hmmmmmm, ever happen to you? Do you ever ‘fall into darkness, feel like you’re in hell – so distant from God due to your ‘actions’ that here and now do judge you unto repentance by the Holy Spirit?!?!?!! I know of NO OTHER WAY. I HAVE NO OTHER REFERENCE TO MY LIFE WITH GOD BUT THIS. Do I call out to God in hell to help me?! Do I ask Him to save me and do I profess the HE is ALONE my ONLY Savior while I’m in HELL: “holen- German-”darkness”/ Sheol – Hebrew- “darkness/ phulake – Greek -“prison (as known as the dark caverns guarded by the prison watch)

Might I remind you that King David spoke to God using the exact same words as the Aristotelian defined, “Kolosus”, by David’s enemies being in the process of the ‘destroyed enemies’ in order that THEY could ‘’come back to be ashamed”. Who are the “THEY” if they are both sent off to ‘eternal damnation’ and yet, “come back to be ashamed”?!??!?!?! Refer to the previous paragraph!

Here are Christ’s words in Matthew 25 echoed in Psalms 6:9: “Depart from me, all ye workers of iniquity; for the LORD has heard the voice of my weeping”..(David continues this prayer in Psalms 6:10, “Let all my enemies be ashamed and sorely vexed; LET THEM RETURN AND BE ASHAMED”.

Is this NOT a *RETURN* – repentance?! Is this NOT a return to the ‘acknowledgement’ of their wrong?! Is this not the meaning of “REPENTANCE” —metanoia –’a changed mind, a repented mind’?!?!? Yes, yes it is!!! Again, Is this NOT the VERY usage of “Kolosis”—”Judgment” in the Greek New Testament of Christ’s words that Aristotle used of “JUDGMENT- Kolosus”!?!? Let’s go on:


Jesus continues to express *those* who did NOT give charity: “…as you did not do unto the least of them you did not do it unto ME”.

*These beings* who act as non-charitable are not the full ‘being’, not the ontological-‘’coming to be” –whole “ person who is FINALLY RECTIFIED. If there was the word, “REVENGE”, as Aristotle continues, it would be for the benefit of the Avenger. This ‘revenge’ would be “in reaction” to an act by the infractor of the Law. Aren’t works of the Law Destroyed by Christ?! The VERY THING that holds to account damnation upon the infractor of the Law?!?!

Again, look at the words in Matthew 25:40: “The KING (! quoting King David right here from Psalms 5-6!) will say, –The KING will reply, ‘Truly I tell you, whatever you did for one of the least of these brothers and sisters of mine, you did for me. Then he (King David – past in foreshadowed *language*) will say to those on his left, ‘Depart from me, you who are cursed, into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels….”. .

Are not even the angels subdued under Christ’s feet at the end where death, hell, all powers and principalities subdued?! Continuing Matthew 25: “…..will go away into everlasting punishment ( kolasin aionion —durative infliction for the benefit of the sinner as Aristotle defined and original language used in the New Testament), but the righteous into eternal life”.

These are two different allotments and two kinds of ‘beings’. Once again, Aristotle does indeed use this term in his “rhetoric”: Aristotle: “Kolosus (judgment)” is used for the SAKE/ BENEFIT of the one being punished” – i.e., IN ORDER FOR REMISSION OF THE SIN!/ A RECTIFICATION!!!

The eternal scourging (not our English idea of “Eternity” from the perverted Latin Vulgate, “Aeturnus”, which was moreover used in the Medieval King James *version*) is a tool put upon the ‘evil doer’ in order for their eye or hand to burn and not them! Aristotle says that “anger for revenge (Greek: “ekdikes – the action of inflicting harm or hurt on someone for an injury or wrong suffered at their hands} is a “habit based on appetite that is rooted in emotions–human emotions” –> cf. Aristotle’s “Rhetoric”–Book 1/ Chapter 10/ vs. 13 in the “Basic Writings of Aristotle”. This kind of revenge is ‘retributory’ and you see it working in legalism throughout the Middle East. Wars find their way fairly easy into such common grounds of “eye for an eye” mentality.

Once more: Kolosin Aeonon = “a duration or time of beneficial affliction to bring one back to restoration”. THIS is the meaning in the classical, Platonic and Aristotelian Greek from which the New Testament was the “catcher’s mitt” for such terms. Therefore, terms such as judgment, salvation, faith, God, Logos, etc. have been all too familiar for the Greek speaking New Testament Church who knew EXACTLY what they meant when they were edified and taught their children in the Paideia!!!

Where do we see Hell as a real place? I see it HERE and NOW. It has meaning if IT is Here and Now.

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